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Why did Mexico free itself from Spain?

  1. Jan 23, 2005 #1
    Hey, I"m not sure if this was the right place to ask, but why did Mexico wanted to be free from rule from Spain? Any details?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 23, 2005 #2

    quasar987

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    Because

    [tex]\Gamma^l_{ki} = \frac{1}{2} g^{lj} (\partial_k g_{ij} + \partial_i g_{jk} - \partial_j g_{ki})[/tex]

    How could you miss that ?!?! :smile:


    No this is probably not the best place to ask. Try General Discussion, or even Politics and World Affairs.
     
  4. Jan 23, 2005 #3
    Sorry, I'll post this there then.
     
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