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If f is continuous function and (x_n) is a sequence then x_n \to x \implies f(x_n) \to f(x)
The converse f(x_n) \to f(x) \implies x_n \to x in general isn't true but why is it true, for example, if f is arctan?
The converse f(x_n) \to f(x) \implies x_n \to x in general isn't true but why is it true, for example, if f is arctan?