Why does d/dt transform to a partial derivative in the integral?

In summary, the equation (1.21) in the normalization chapter involves a total derivative in the first expression, but since the integrand is a function of both x and t, a partial derivative is used in the second expression. This is because the integral is a function of t only and the derivative can be taken with respect to t. However, to account for the fact that the integration range does not change with time, the time derivative is taken at a fixed x value, requiring the use of a partial derivative.
  • #1
Lasha
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In a normalization chapter there's an equation(1.21) which says: d/dt ∫|ψ(x,t)|[itex]^{2}[/itex]dx=∫∂/∂t |ψ(x,t)|[itex]^{2}[/itex]dx
there was a description:(Note that integral is a function only of t,so I use a total derivative (d/dt) in the first expression,but the integrand is a function of x as well as t , so it's a partial derivative in the second one (∂/∂t) )
so this textbook started very simple and intuitive, but now I'm really confused.First of all why did d/dt appear and why did it "transform" to a partial derivative as it "entered" the integral?
 
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  • #2
The integral
[tex]N(t)=\int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x \; |\psi(x,t)|^2[/tex]
is a function of [itex]t[/itex] only, because you integrate over [itex]x[/itex]. Thus you can take only the derivative wrt. [itex]t[/itex].

Now, because the integration range [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex] doesn't change with time, you can as well take first the time derivative of the integrand and then integrate wrt. [itex]x[/itex]. Now, since you have a function of [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]t[/itex] you must indicate that you take the time derivative at fixed [itex]x[/itex]. That's why you have to use a partial derivative:
[tex]\frac{\mathrm{d}N(t)}{\mathrm{d} t} = \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x \frac{\partial}{\partial t} |\psi(x,t)|^2.[/tex]
 
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