- #1

timn

- 19

- 0

## Homework Statement

This is an example from Gasiorowicz's

*Quantum Physics*. "Example 3-1" is a particle in an infinite potential-well, but that should not matter.

## Homework Equations

## The Attempt at a Solution

Why is P(-2) (which I suppose is the probability that the eigenvalue -2 is measured) the coefficient squared?

The sum of the squares of the coefficient should be normalised, so it makes sense, but I don't understand why.

To figure out how much an eigenfunction contributes to the probability function -- psi^2 -- I'd square psi as follows:

[tex]

\left( \frac{N}{4}\sqrt{2\pi}(u_ {-2}+2u_0+u_2) \right)^2

= \frac{N^2\pi^2}{8}(u_ {-2}^2+2u_0^2+u_2^2+2u_{-2}u_2+4u_{-2}u_0+4u_0u_2)

[/tex]

followed by being completely lost.

Could anyone explain this or make it seem plausible for me?

Edit: For reference, the answer is P(-2)=1/6.