rayman123
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[x_{\alpha}, p_{\alpha}]\psi(r)=[x_{\alpha}(-i\hbar \frac{\partial}{{ \partial x_\alpha}})-(-i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial x_{\alpha}})x_{\alpha}]\psi(r)
why the result is
i\hbar\psi(r) should not be 0?
and then the same situation
why in this case we get 0?
[x_{\beta}, p_{\beta}]\psi(r)=0 ? Can someone please explain it?
why the result is
i\hbar\psi(r) should not be 0?
and then the same situation
why in this case we get 0?
[x_{\beta}, p_{\beta}]\psi(r)=0 ? Can someone please explain it?