smallphi said:
Well (something) and div(something) can have very different behaviors at origin r =0 so one has to consider div(something) directly to decide if that could be a distribution or not.
Fair enough. \hat{r} / r^3 is not a function on all of
R^3, so is not in the domain of the divergence operator you learned in calculus. It's not a tempered distribution, so you cannot apply the divergence operator for tempered distributions.
If you choose another definition of the divergence operator, then whether its domain includes \hat{r} / r^3 is yet another question.
For example, if you define distributions on a space of test functions have the property that they are all zero at the origin, then \hat{r} / r^3 ought to be a distribution and have a divergence. But such a choice of test functions means you are effectively working only on \mathbb{R}^3 - \{\, (0, 0, 0)\, \}.
Ostensibly, if you could define a divergence for \hat{r} / r^3, you would want the product rule to hold, so:
\nabla \cdot \left( \frac{\hat{r}}{r^3} \right) =<br />
\nabla \left(\frac{1}{r}\right) \cdot \frac{\hat{r}}{r^2} + \frac{1}{r} \nabla \cdot \left( \frac{\hat{r}}{r^2} \right)<br />
= <br />
-\frac{1}{r^4} + \frac{4\pi}{r} \delta^3(\vec{r})
I suppose you could cross your fingers and try to use this expression in a formal manner. Such optimism works now and then!