Why is this fission reaction possible?

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    Fission Reaction
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The fission reaction is possible because it releases energy due to an increase in binding energy per nucleon from the reactants (uranium) to the products (barium and krypton). A neutron with sufficient kinetic energy can initiate the reaction, but it cannot split uranium into individual protons and neutrons without exceeding 1 GeV, which would result in different reactions. The favorable energy release is a key factor in the fission process. Understanding the binding energy dynamics is crucial to grasping why fission occurs. The discussion clarifies the relationship between neutron energy and the fission reaction's feasibility.
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1. Homework Statement

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Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


I thought it was because the kinetic energy of the neutron is equal to or larger than the binding energy of Uranium.. But that's not the answer. Can someone please explain why? Thanks
 
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It is favorable because in this reaction energy is released: this release of energy comes from the fact that the binding energy per nucleon increases from reactants (U) to products (Ba + Kr).
 
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If the neutron would be so high-energetic, it could split up the uranium into 92 individual protons and 143 neutrons. It cannot do that (it would need more than 1 GeV for that - but then you would get different reactions), but you also have binding energy at the right side in the two nuclei.
 
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Physics-Tutor said:
It is favorable because in this reaction energy is released: this release of energy comes from the fact that the binding energy per nucleon increases from reactants (U) to products (Ba + Kr).
Oh I see.. Thanks a lot !
 
mfb said:
If the neutron would be so high-energetic, it could split up the uranium into 92 individual protons and 143 neutrons. It cannot do that (it would need more than 1 GeV for that - but then you would get different reactions), but you also have binding energy at the right side in the two nuclei.
Oh right.. Thanks for that point. I got it .
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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