Why maxwell's 3rd equations has no coefficient?

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The discussion centers on the unique nature of Faraday's Law within Maxwell's equations, specifically its proportionality coefficient of -1, unlike the other three equations which incorporate dimensional constants. The coefficient's value is attributed to the choice of units, particularly in Gaussian units where electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) are measured in the same units. This results in the speed of light appearing in the equation, highlighting the historical context of unit selection in physics.

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For the four Maxwell equations, only the third one (Faraday's Law) has a proportionality coefficient of -1, while rest have a magnetic constant or electric constant .

It doesn't seem like the units of the third law are calibrated to eliminate the constant. So why is the coefficient equal to exactly -1, not some materially dependent coefficient k?
 
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I second jasonRFs comment. It is purely due to the units chosen.
 
The real question is, why do the other 3 equations have dimensional constants introduced. That is because they use different units for E and B, even though they are parts of the same tensor.
 
Meir Achuz said:
The real question is, why do the other 3 equations have dimensional constants introduced. That is because they use different units for E and B, even though they are parts of the same tensor.

But this is historical - like measuring distances and times in different units. Time should be measured in meters.
 
Meir Achuz said:
The real question is, why do the other 3 equations have dimensional constants introduced. That is because they use different units for E and B, even though they are parts of the same tensor.

This is the answer I am looking for.
 

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