Why the Integration Constant in the Schrödinger Equation is Set to L(L+1)?

member 141513
in the schrodinger equation the integration constant in the angular wave
equation is set to L(L+1).
may i know why this is set ,what is the reason , thx!
 
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Your question lacks naming the system for which the Schrödinger's equation is used.

If it was for the hydrogen atom, it may be worthy to know that the total angular momentum is a constant of motion and the H_{dummy particle} contains L^2 in its expression. When separating the spherical variables from the radial one, you're bumping into the spectral equation for L^2.
 
I think you need to look at the details of the solution for the \theta part of the Schrödinger equation in terms of associated Legendre polynomials.
 
The eigenvalues of the angular momentum operator L^2 are L(L+1).
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!
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