Why to change from momentum space integrals to spherical coordinate ones?

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The discussion centers on the transition from momentum space integrals to spherical coordinates for loop contributions to the Higgs. The change is a standard multivariable calculus procedure, where the volume element transforms from d^3p to p^2 dp dΩ. Participants question the necessity of this change, as some have successfully used dimensional regularization without it. The concept of a "unit sphere" arises, clarifying that the volume element in d dimensions relates to the area of a d-1-dimensional unit sphere when integrating over angles. Ultimately, the importance of this transformation lies in simplifying the evaluation of integrals in theoretical physics.
Breo
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So I was asked to compute loop contributions to the Higgs and compute the integrals in spherical coordinates, I gave a look to Halzen book but did not found anything. Why, when and how to make that change?
 
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I suspect they mean spherical coordinates in momentum space ...
 
Orodruin said:
I suspect they mean spherical coordinates in momentum space ...

"[...]Change the momentum integrals to spherical coordinates[...]"
 
So what is the problem? Going to spherical coordinates is a standard procedure from multivariable calculus.
 
d^3 p \rightarrow p^2 dp d \Omega
is quite useful ...
 
But why? because I solved loop integrals using dim regularization and other tricks and never used the change of variables. That is why I asked when to use the change of variables instead to keep using my previous methods (Used in many loop computations by some textboks like Peskin's)
 
Breo said:
But why? because I solved loop integrals using dim regularization and other tricks and never used the change of variables.
Did you perhaps use the standard forms of the integrals that you end up with in dim-reg which you can find, eg, in the end of Peskin? How do you think these integrals are evaluated?
 
oh!

On the unit sphere area?
 
why "unit" sphere area?
 
  • #10
ChrisVer said:
why "unit" sphere area?

I am still wondering haha

Do not know for now... tip for clairvoyance?
 
  • #11
The entire point with dim reg is to rewrite the integral in 4-d as a limit of an integral in d "dimensions". Interpreting it as the area of a d-1-dimensional unit sphere and an integral where ##p^{d-1}\, dp## has replaced the volume ##d^dp##.
 
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  • #12
Let's try it this way... How would you solve this integral:
\int \frac{d^3 p}{(2 \pi)^3} \frac{a }{|p|^2+m^2} e^{-i\vec{p} \cdot \vec{x}}
?
 
  • #13
Orodruin said:
area of a d-1-dimensional unit sphere

Why saying a unit sphere? This doesn't make sense, exactly because the ##d^d p## is a volume. The d^d p = |p|^{d-1} dp d\Omega_{d-1} is a volume element of an "hypersphere" between radius ##p## and ##p+dp##.

edit: I think I figured it out
 
  • #14
ChrisVer said:
Why saying a unit sphere? This doesn't make sense, exactly because the ##d^d p## is a volume. The d^d p = |p|^{d-1} dp d\Omega_{d-1} is a volume element of an "hypersphere" between radius ##p## and ##p+dp##.
Yes, exactly. I took one step extra and integrated the ##d\Omega##. This gives you the area of the d-1-dimensional unit sphere.
 

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