I was reading my textbook, and I came across the old formula F friction = mu N . It also explicitly stated that force of friction is independent of area. Of course I immediately wondered if this were true then why do wider tires have move grip, So googled searched for the answer. I tried a couple of different searches, and read about 2 dozen different resulting pages. Here's the problem. They all had different answers, and every answer had another response that completely contradicted it. After all that reading I actually became less certain about what exactly friction is and how it works, so here is a list of questions I have. 1. Is the force of friction independent of area for all different types of friction If Friction is caused by the molecular forces between two objects in close contact, and said objects are relatively FLAT than why wouldn't an increase in area cause greater friction.( more molecular bonds/ attractions) If the friction is caused by the interlocking of teeth of the two objects together, and the only way to start moving is to knock down the teeth (instead of lifting or sliding one object over the teeth of the other) then shouldn't an increase in area cause a great increase in friction? An even better example would be Velcro, surely an increase of the area of Velcro would cause a greater force of friction. 2. If the force of friction is independent of area, then Why do wider tires have more friction or better grip? I searched for the answer but I found many different responses. Most of the responses were contradicted by a different answer given by someone else. Some claimed the tire didn't actually have more grip, but instead would wear down less and thus provide better traction. Some said the tires when hot act like glue or scotch tape, and thus increasing the surface area would be like adding more glue, others claimed that the Contact patch didn't even increase with larger tires. I can't even list all of the different answer here. So, I'm hoping you guys can shine some light on this .