Rev Prez
- 29
- 0
Say we have \sum_{i,j} c_{ij} |i\rangle_A \; |j\rangle_B which is an entangled state, is there a choice for c_ij we can make that would be a wormhole?
chroot said:Wormholes are a prediction of general relativity.
c_ij are just complex numbers.
- Warren
chroot said:You're talking about a quantum mechanical state, and then asking a question about it involving general relativity. It doesn't make any sense.
Rev Prez said:Also, another question. If |i\rangle is a unit state vector, then what exactly does the coefficient c represent?
chroot said:A wormhole is not a quantum-mechanical object! There is no such thing as a wormhole in quantum mechanics.
- Warren
Tom Mattson said:I don't know about the wormhole question, because I've never looked at QM in curved spacetime, but...
the c_{ij} are the amplitudes of the basis states |i>_A|j>_B. So |c_{ij}|^2 is the probability of being found in state ij.
Rev Prez said:Wait a second, in the Schrodinger equation the amplitude is scaled by the Hamiltonian. The state vectors are already normalized,
so what's the point of the coefficient?
chroot said:The Hamiltonian is an operator with only two indices; the stress-energy tensor has four.
- Warren
One of the most interesting questions to ponder is what would Einstein’s reaction have been to Bell inequality violations by quantum theory. John Bell was able to show that correlations produced between spacelike separated quantum systems cannot in general be explained by local degrees of freedom carried with these systems. Reading the Einstein-Rosen paper, in which nontrivial topology is introducted without blinking, I’m inclined to think that Einstein would have thought of Bell’s result not as invalidating “classical” reasoning about quantum theory, but instead as a validation of the point of view advocated in this paper: that quantum theory is a consequence of a topological extension of general relativity.
christaltman said: