- #1
Phrak
- 4,267
- 6
In developing the Yang-Mills Lagrangian, Wikipedia defines the covariant derivative as
[tex]\ D_ \mu = \partial _\mu + A _\mu (x) [/tex].
Is A_mu to be taken as a 1-form, so that
[tex] \ D _\mu \Phi = \partial _\mu \Phi + A _\mu (x) [/tex]
or an operator on \Phi, such that
[tex] \ D _\mu \Phi = \partial _\mu \Phi + A _\mu (x) \Phi [/tex]
[tex]\ D_ \mu = \partial _\mu + A _\mu (x) [/tex].
Is A_mu to be taken as a 1-form, so that
[tex] \ D _\mu \Phi = \partial _\mu \Phi + A _\mu (x) [/tex]
or an operator on \Phi, such that
[tex] \ D _\mu \Phi = \partial _\mu \Phi + A _\mu (x) \Phi [/tex]
Last edited: