QuarkHead
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Since it appears (so far) I am infringing no rule, here is another shameless copy/paste of a thread I started on another forum, where I didn't get too much help - rather, folk tried, but confused me even further! See if you guys can do better. (Note:I am not a physicist)
The mathematics here is not especially exotic, but I cannot get the full picture. As I am working from a mathematics, not a physics, text, I will lay it out roughly as I find it.
So. We start, it seems, with a vector space \mathcal{A} of 1-forms A called "potentials". Is it not the case that the existence of a potential implies the existence of a physical field? (I say "physical field" as I am having some trouble relating this to the abstract math definition - a commutative ring with multiplicative inverse, say).
Anyway, I am invited to consider the set of all linear automorphisms \text{Aut}(\mathcal{A}): \mathcal{A \to A}. It is easy enough to see this is a group under the usual axioms, so set \text{Aut}\mathcal{A} \equiv G \subseteq GL(\mathcal{A}) which is evidently a (matrix) Lie group thereby. This is apparently called the gauge (transformation) group.
Now for some g \in G, define the g-orbit of some A \in \mathcal{A} to be all A',\,\,A'' that can be "g-reached" from A,\,\,A', respectively. In other words, the (finite?) sequence g(A),\,\,g(g(A)),\,\,g(g(g(A))),...,g^n(A) is defined. Call this orbit as A^g, and note, from the group law, that any A \in \mathcal{A} occupies at least one, and at most one, orbit.
This induces the partition \mathcal{A}/G, whose elements are simply those A in the same orbit A^g. Call this a "gauge equivalence".
Now it seems I must consider the orbit bundle \mathcal{A}(G, \mathcal{A}/G).
Here I start to unravel slightly. By the definition of a bundle, I will require that \mathcal{A} is the total manifold; no sweat, any vector space (within reason) is a manifold. I will also require that \mathcal{A}/G is the "base manifold".
Umm. \mathcal{A},\,\, G are manifolds (they are - recall that G is a Lie group), does this imply the quotient is likewise? I think, not sure...(G is the structure group for the total manifold, btw.)
But surely, this bundle can only be an "orbit bundle" if it is a principal bundle, i.e. the fibres are the orbits A^g and A^g \cong G, the structure group. If this is so, will it suffice to note that this congruence is induced by the fact that each orbit A^g is uniquely determined by g \in G?
Anyway, it seems that, under this circumstance, I may call the (principal?) orbit bundle the bundle of Yang-Mills connection 1-forms on the principal bundle P(G,M), where I suppose I am now to assume that the base manifold M is Minkowski spacetime, and that the structure group is again a Lie group (same one? Dunno)??
I'm sorry, but this is confusing me. Any other take on this would be most welcome - but keep it simple enough for a simpleton!
The mathematics here is not especially exotic, but I cannot get the full picture. As I am working from a mathematics, not a physics, text, I will lay it out roughly as I find it.
So. We start, it seems, with a vector space \mathcal{A} of 1-forms A called "potentials". Is it not the case that the existence of a potential implies the existence of a physical field? (I say "physical field" as I am having some trouble relating this to the abstract math definition - a commutative ring with multiplicative inverse, say).
Anyway, I am invited to consider the set of all linear automorphisms \text{Aut}(\mathcal{A}): \mathcal{A \to A}. It is easy enough to see this is a group under the usual axioms, so set \text{Aut}\mathcal{A} \equiv G \subseteq GL(\mathcal{A}) which is evidently a (matrix) Lie group thereby. This is apparently called the gauge (transformation) group.
Now for some g \in G, define the g-orbit of some A \in \mathcal{A} to be all A',\,\,A'' that can be "g-reached" from A,\,\,A', respectively. In other words, the (finite?) sequence g(A),\,\,g(g(A)),\,\,g(g(g(A))),...,g^n(A) is defined. Call this orbit as A^g, and note, from the group law, that any A \in \mathcal{A} occupies at least one, and at most one, orbit.
This induces the partition \mathcal{A}/G, whose elements are simply those A in the same orbit A^g. Call this a "gauge equivalence".
Now it seems I must consider the orbit bundle \mathcal{A}(G, \mathcal{A}/G).
Here I start to unravel slightly. By the definition of a bundle, I will require that \mathcal{A} is the total manifold; no sweat, any vector space (within reason) is a manifold. I will also require that \mathcal{A}/G is the "base manifold".
Umm. \mathcal{A},\,\, G are manifolds (they are - recall that G is a Lie group), does this imply the quotient is likewise? I think, not sure...(G is the structure group for the total manifold, btw.)
But surely, this bundle can only be an "orbit bundle" if it is a principal bundle, i.e. the fibres are the orbits A^g and A^g \cong G, the structure group. If this is so, will it suffice to note that this congruence is induced by the fact that each orbit A^g is uniquely determined by g \in G?
Anyway, it seems that, under this circumstance, I may call the (principal?) orbit bundle the bundle of Yang-Mills connection 1-forms on the principal bundle P(G,M), where I suppose I am now to assume that the base manifold M is Minkowski spacetime, and that the structure group is again a Lie group (same one? Dunno)??
I'm sorry, but this is confusing me. Any other take on this would be most welcome - but keep it simple enough for a simpleton!