FunkyDwarf
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Hey guys,
Doin revision for my maths exam and i came across this question from a past exam:
Find fx(x,y) of
f(x,y) = \frac{(1+4xy)}{2} for 0 \leq x, y \leq 1 and zero otherwise
Now this should equal\int \frac{(1+4xy)}{2} dyover all y but that leads to infinities ( as y goes from minus infinity to 1)which obviously we can't have. I am sure I am missing something simple and stupid i just need someone to point ito out :)
Cheers
-G
NOTE: Sorry this latex is stuffing up, tryin to fix it
Doin revision for my maths exam and i came across this question from a past exam:
Homework Statement
Find fx(x,y) of
f(x,y) = \frac{(1+4xy)}{2} for 0 \leq x, y \leq 1 and zero otherwise
Homework Equations
Now this should equal\int \frac{(1+4xy)}{2} dyover all y but that leads to infinities ( as y goes from minus infinity to 1)which obviously we can't have. I am sure I am missing something simple and stupid i just need someone to point ito out :)
Cheers
-G
NOTE: Sorry this latex is stuffing up, tryin to fix it
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