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As you know,the formula for doppler effect is:
f^{'}=\frac{v-v_{o}}{v-v_{s}}f
relativity suggests(at least I think) that f^{'} for v_{o}=u and v_{s}=0 should be the same with f^{'} for v_{o}=0 and v_{s}=-u,otherwise,there will be a way for the listener to know that which one,sound source or listener,is moving with constant velocity.
So does relativity suggest a correction or simply I am wrong?
thanks
f^{'}=\frac{v-v_{o}}{v-v_{s}}f
relativity suggests(at least I think) that f^{'} for v_{o}=u and v_{s}=0 should be the same with f^{'} for v_{o}=0 and v_{s}=-u,otherwise,there will be a way for the listener to know that which one,sound source or listener,is moving with constant velocity.
So does relativity suggest a correction or simply I am wrong?
thanks
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