How to Prove the Classical Angular Momentum Commutation Relation?

AI Thread Summary
To prove the classical angular momentum commutation relation, the expression {Li, Lj} = εijkLk can be derived using the Levi-Civita symbol and the definition of the Poisson bracket. It is important to express Li in terms of the generalized coordinates qi and momenta pi. The discussion highlights that using square brackets can lead to confusion in classical mechanics. A participant expresses a desire to extend the relation to a general vector Vi, questioning how to construct such a vector while maintaining the relation {Vi, Lj} = εijkVk. The conversation emphasizes the need for clarity in notation and the proper formulation of vectors in classical mechanics.
ssamsymn
Messages
18
Reaction score
0
[Li,Lj]=εijkLk

how can I prove this expression classically?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Classically, L is not an operator, so you cannot define a commutator.

You can show that {Li, Lj}=εijkLk. I don't know if that's what you meant by saying "Classically". If so, just write out Li in terms of qi and pi. If you write the correct expression for it using Levi-Civita symbol and apply definition of Poisson bracket, it should be a trivial matter.
 
Yes, exactly. Thank you very much. Using square brackets may be confusing in classical mechanics. I figured out to make this with levi civita symbol. But there is another problem I have now. if I replace the Li with some general vector Vi, it should still be hold

{Vi,Lj}=εijkVk

how should I constract a general V vector?
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top