Rigid Body Rotation: Proving/Disproving \vec{R'} Direction

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around proving or disproving the relationship between the direction of the vector \vec{R'}, representing the centerline of a tube after translation and rotation, and the relative displacement vector \vec{u} between the top and bottom pins of the tube. The conjecture suggests that the directions of \vec{R'} and \vec{u} are the same, expressed mathematically as direction(\vec{R'}) = direction(\vec{u}). However, a counterexample is presented where if both displacements are equal, \vec{u} becomes zero, indicating that \vec{R'} does not share the same direction as \vec{u}. The equations derived in the discussion are confirmed to be correct, but the conjecture is ultimately disproven under specific conditions. The exploration highlights the complexities of rigid body rotation and the constraints of the system.
Saladsamurai
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Homework Statement



This is not a HW problem, but something I am trying to prove/disprove for my own knowledge. I have a tube pinned at both ends and inclined in the x-y plane. The pin locations can both move freely in space but subject to the constraint that the tube will not stretch or contract.

Assuming that the top of the tube displaces by \vec{u}^{top} and the bottom displaces by \vec{u}^{bot} we end up with a tube that has been rotated and translated in space.

Let the \vec{R} be the vector directed along the tube centerline (CL) from bottom-pin to top-pin and let \vec{R'} be the new tube CL after translation & rotation.


I am conjecturing that the direction of \vec{R'} is that same the direction of the "relative displacement vector" shown below in (1):

\vec{u}= (u^{top}_x - u^{bot}_x )_x + (u^{top}_y - u^{bot}_y )_y\qquad(1)

i.e., I am thinking that:

direction(\vec{R'}) = direction(\vec{u})\qquad(2)

Homework Equations



Vector Rules/Identities


The Attempt at a Solution


I am having a little trouble starting this one off. That could very well be because it is not true, we'll have to find out.

We can write (2) as:

\tan^{-1}\frac{R'_y}{R'_x} = \tan^{-1}\frac{u_y}{u_x}

so that the ratios must be equal in order to be true:

\frac{R'_y}{R'_x} =\frac{u_y}{u_x}\qquad(3)

EDIT:
If we let the bottom pin of R be at the origin, we can write:

<br /> \vec{R&#039;} = R&#039;_x + R&#039;_y<br />

<br /> \Rightarrow \vec{R&#039;} = (R_x +u^{top}_x) - u^{bot}_x)_x + (R_y + u^{top}_y) - u^{bot}_y)_y <br />

OR

<br /> \Rightarrow \vec{R&#039;} = (R_x +(u^{top}_x - u^{bot}_x))_x + (R_y + (u^{top}_y - u^{bot}_y))_y <br /> \qquad(4)

(4) is as far as I seem to get. I am not sure if I made any errors or if there is a way to show that:

<br /> \frac{(R_y + (u^{top}_y - u^{bot}_y))}{(R_x +(u^{top}_x - u^{bot}_x))} =\frac{R&#039;_y}{R&#039;_x}<br />

Any thoughts?
Thank you.
 
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Well you can disprove your conjecture by contradiction immediately, assuming:

<br /> \vec{u}^{top} = a\hat{x} = \vec{u}^{bot}<br />

<br /> \text{where } a\in\mathbb{R}<br />

This would give \vec{u}=0 and:

<br /> \vec{R}=\vec{R}&#039;<br />

Which means \vec{R}&#039; does not share the same direction as \vec{u}. Your equation in (4) I believe is correct however.

EDIT: I assumed "detached" vectors which are free to move through space.
 
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