A question about the derivative

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of derivatives in calculus, specifically the limit definition of the derivative and the manipulation of limits in expressions involving derivatives.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore whether the limit definition of the derivative can be manipulated in specific ways, questioning the validity of distributing limits across functions and the implications of limits approaching zero in both the numerator and denominator.

Discussion Status

Participants have raised important points regarding the manipulation of limits and the synchronization of terms in expressions. Some guidance has been offered about the limitations of applying the quotient rule for limits when the denominator approaches zero.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing discussion about the assumptions underlying the manipulation of limits, particularly in the context of derivatives, and how these assumptions affect the validity of the expressions being considered.

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Homework Statement



Generally the derivative has the limit x-- h applied to the whole thing like
$$\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$$

I'm guessing you can't express it as

$$\frac{\lim_{h\to 0} f(x+h)-f(x)}{\lim_{h\to 0} h}$$

because the quotient rule for limits doesn't hold when the limit of bottom part of the fraction equals 0.

Can you express it like this though?

$$\frac{f(x +\lim_{h\to 0} h)-f(x)}{\lim_{h\to 0} h}$$

In other words, does $$\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} = \frac{f(x +\lim_{h\to 0} h)-f(x)}{\lim_{h\to 0} h}$$ ?
 
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Flumpster said:

Homework Statement



Generally the derivative has the limit x-- h applied to the whole thing like
$$\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$$

I'm guessing you can't express it as

$$\frac{\lim_{h\to 0} f(x+h)-f(x)}{\lim_{h\to 0} h}$$

because the quotient rule for limits doesn't hold when the limit of bottom part of the fraction equals 0.

Can you express it like this though?

$$\frac{f(x +\lim_{h\to 0} h)-f(x)}{\lim_{h\to 0} h}$$

In other words, does $$\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} = \frac{f(x +\lim_{h\to 0} h)-f(x)}{\lim_{h\to 0} h}$$ ?

The limit of the denominator is zero in that expression too. So, no, you can't do that.
 
Besides what SammyS said, you can't in general "distribute" the limit operation into a function.

IOW, it's generally not true that
## \lim_{h \to 0} f(x + h) = f(x + \lim_{h \to 0} h)##
 
Your latter formula means the denominator and the numerator are not synchronized when h--->0
Could you understand me?
 
Bennett.F.L said:
Your latter formula means the denominator and the numerator are not synchronized when h--->0
Could you understand me?
Who is this directed to, and what do you mean?
 
Thanks, Mark44 and SammyS :)
Bennett.F.L, I'm sorry, I'm not sure what you mean. It's ok though, I think I got it.
 

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