nonequilibrium
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It seems rather straight forward that if you have an abelian group G with \# G = p_1 p_2 \cdots p_n (these being different primes), that it is cyclic. The reason being that you have elements g_1, g_2, \cdots g_n with the respective prime order (Cauchy's theorem) and their product will have to have the order of G. Rather simple, but I wanted to check that I'm not overlooking something simple because I find the result rather interesting although I was never told this in any of my algebra classes, which strikes me as strange.