Angular momentum and Expectation values

Ben4000
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Homework Statement



Express Lx in terms of the commutator of Ly and Lz and, using this result, show that <Lx>=0 for this particle.

The Attempt at a Solution



[Ly,Lz]=i(hbar)Lx

<Lx>=< l,m l Lx l l,m>

then what?
 
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I can show that <Lx>=0 using the ladder opertators, but i don't think this is what is wanted from this question... how do i use
[Ly,Lz]=i(hbar)Lx to prove <Lx> = 0?
 
\langle L_x\rangle=\langle l,m|L_x|l,m\rangle=\frac{-i}{\hbar}\langle l,m|[L_y,L_z]|l,m\rangle

Expand the commutator using its definition, and take the hermitian conjugate of the resulting equation...what do you see?
 
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