- #1
Zorba
- 77
- 0
I read the following in a textbook I'm reading:
If the total linear momentum of a system of particles is zero, then the angular momentum of the system is independent of the choice of origin.
It was given without proof and I've been trying to see why this is the case - mainly intuitively speaking, as it doesn't seem entirely obvious to me, if anyone can provide any insight.
Cheers.
If the total linear momentum of a system of particles is zero, then the angular momentum of the system is independent of the choice of origin.
It was given without proof and I've been trying to see why this is the case - mainly intuitively speaking, as it doesn't seem entirely obvious to me, if anyone can provide any insight.
Cheers.