Well, thanks to all, but I was thinking of a specific case: of IR^4 and (IR^4)',
with (IR^4)' being an exotic IR^4, which is homeo. but not diffeo. to std. IR^4
(with id. chart), and, in general, if we somehow knew from the start that we had
M=(X,S),M'=(X,S') with:
X as the topology of the space (meaning that both spaces
are, as topological spaces, equivalent, i.e, M,M' are homeomorphic), and
S,S' , the respective differentiable--say C^oo--structures on M,M', such
that M,M' are not diffeomorphic;
the example of exotic and original IR^4 is just used to show--only case I know of--
that we are not starting with a false premise --so we won't end up with an
"If pigs fly" issue .
Then, the question would be (and I think this is somewhat different from where
wonk was getting at what would different properties would we find to be
different in IR^4 and in (IR^4)',and/or, more generally, what properties would
be different in M,M'.
.
And, while we are at it: does anyone know of manifolds that are C^0
but not C^1?. ( I guess the general case of a C^k-but-not-C^(k+1)
would be too difficult), meaning that M admits an atlas in which the
overlaps are continuous, but, for any atlas, the overlaps are not
differentiable; there is always a pair of overlaping charts where the
exchange is not differentiable.
This last issue came up re a recent result I saw that
proved to me that the cone (right-circular cone: circular base, vertex
perp. to the base, etc.) was not an example of a C^0-but-not-C^1
mfld.
Result is not that big of a deal: an n- manifold (n=/4)with a 1-chart
atlas, is a smooth mfld., and diffeomorphic (globally) to IR^n. The cone has
a 1-chart atlas.
It is 4 a.m, and as cold as hell, so I hope this makes sense.