Are the Equations for Normal Force on an Inclined Plane the Same?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around the equations for normal force on an inclined plane, specifically how two derived equations appear to yield different results. The first equation, Fn = mgcos(theta), is valid when the object is not accelerating vertically, while the second equation, Fn = mg/cos(theta), is deemed invalid under these conditions. It is clarified that the second equation could apply in scenarios where the object moves perpendicular to the incline, such as a car on a banked road. The key takeaway is that the context of acceleration determines which equation for normal force is applicable. Understanding the relationship between acceleration and the components of forces is crucial for correctly applying these equations.
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Homework Statement


I was doing a problem with normal force on an inclined plane and found the normal force by finding the y-component of the gravity vector. Then I also found that if I find the components of the normal force, I can also get another answer.
-How are the 2 different equations available for the normal force the same


Homework Equations


Fg = mg
Fgy = -mgcos(theta)

Fny = Fncos(theta)


The Attempt at a Solution


Fgy = -mgcos(theta)
Fn - mgcos(theta) = 0 'movement along plane; not vertically
Fn = mgcos(theta)

Fny = Fncos(theta)
Fncos(theta) - mg = 0 'movement along plane; not vertically
Fn = mg/cos(theta)

I got 2 equations for Fn; Fn = mgcos(theta), Fn = mg/cos(theta)...I'm not understanding how the 2 are the same; can anyone help
 
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The object is accelerating, a, along the direction of the incline.

This means that in a direction perpendicular to the incline it is not accelerating as you correctly assumed in the derivation of your first formula.

One can decompose the acceleration along the incline into x- and y- components though. This means that in the x and y direction one cannot assume that the acceleration of the object is zero. So your second formula is invalid.
 
I see; thanks. But, in that case, the second equation would work if let's say the object was moving perpendicular to the plane (such as a car on a banked road), right?
 
Yes, because the resultant acceleration is horizontal and there is then no vertical accelleration component.
 
Alright; thanks
 
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