Average momentum squared of Psi(100) of hydrogen atom

phys_chemist
Messages
2
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Calculate <p2> for ψ100 of the hydrogen atom

Homework Equations



ψ100 = 1/(√pi) (1/a0)3/2 e-r/a0

0 r n e-B rdr = n!/Bn+1

p2 = -hbar ∇2 = -hbar2 (r2 d2/dr2 +2 r d/dr) (ψ does not depend on ø or θ)

The Attempt at a Solution

<p2> = ∫ψ*(p2ψ)dV
∫dV = 4pi0r2dr

<p2> = ∫1/(√pi) (1/a0)3/2 e-r/a0 (-hbar2 (r2 d2/dr2 +2 r d/dr) 1/(√pi) (1/a0)3/2 e-r/a0)dV

<p2> = -4 hbar2/ a03 ∫r2 e-r/a0 ( (r/a0)2 - 2r/a0 ) e-r/a0 dr

<p2> = -4 hbar2/ a03 ∫e-2r/a0 ( r4/a02 - 2r3/a0 ) drThe problem that I am running into is that I am calculating the integral to be 0:

B= 2/a0 n1= 4 n2=3

∫e-2r/a0 ( r4/a02 - 2r3/a0 ) dr = (4!/ (a02 (2/a0)5) - (2*3!/ (a0 (2/a0)4 = (24a03/32 - 12a03/16) =0

Am I doing something wrong, because I don't think <p2> would be 0 (that would indicate that the momentum is always 0)?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Simon Bridge said:
First thing I noticed:

Going by the laplace operator in spherical-polar coordinates:
re: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laplace_operator#Three_dimensions $$\nabla^2\psi(r)=\frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\partial}{\partial r}r^2 \frac{\partial}{\partial r}\psi(r)$$

Thank you. I left out the 1/r^2 in the laplace operator. When I redid the problem after fixing the operator, the answer I am now getting makes sense.
 
Easy to do - there are so many examples where you don't need it.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top