One of the favourite themes for threads which create long discussions here is on Bohmian mechanics. Unfortunately, most of them operated under the assumption that the reader is familiar with the intricacies of this ..... interpretation? theory? I do not wish to rehash all that has been written on this theme, but rather, as someone who is neither a physicist nor well familiar with Bohmian mechanics beyond the superficial text descriptions without going through all the maths in Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/De_Broglie–Bohm_theory or Stanford Encyclopedia https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/qm-bohm/ (this latter being obviously written from a partisan point of view), I would like to pose two relatively elementary questions to better understand the dispute. First, I read that an objection to Bohmian mechanics is that it is non-local. Yet I thought that quantum mechanics, with its handling of entanglement, was necessarily non-local. So how is Bohm's theory different in this respect? Secondly, I read in Wikipedia that there is a 2016 article https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/De_Broglie–Bohm_theory#cite_note-67 which points out an experimental difference between a prediction made by mainstream QM and the Bohmian mechanics. (see attachment). If this is the case, could not one settle the dispute through straightforward experimental data? (Yes, I know that there is a whole discussion https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/an-argument-against-bohmian-mechanics.898028/ about https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0001011, but that article predates the one I am asking about.) From these questions you can see that I am not able to wade through all the massive amount of arguments presented on either side, but I would be grateful for any indication that would at least allow me to get my toes wet.