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PeterDonis said:No, it is *not* true that all observers see the universe as homogeneous and isotropic, even in the perfect idealized FRW model. Only a particular set of observers does, the set whose worldlines are orthogonal to the set of spacelike hypersurfaces which are homogeneous and isotropic. Are you trying to claim that *every single worldline* in the spacetime is orthogonal to that set of hypersurfaces? That's absurd.
This is related to the question I asked. In what way do you support this claim of absurdity? My cosmology may be weak but I know that as you get farther out the peculiar motions settle out and and the isotropy begins to dominate. Though here is a 2007 New Astronomy paper that claims to have observed some anisotropy in the overall Hubble expansion the first sentence in the abstract says:
[PLAIN]http://arxiv.org/abs/astro-ph/0703556 said:Based[/PLAIN] on general relativity, it can be argued that deviations from a uniform Hubble flow should be thought of as variations in the Universe's expansion velocity field, rather than being thought of as peculiar velocities with respect to a uniformly expanding space.
In the article it states:
[PLAIN]http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/astro-ph/pdf/0703/0703556v1.pdf said:The[/PLAIN] Cosmological Principle—that the Universe is homogeneous and isotropic—is generally assumed to hold, since averaged over large enough scales the Universe will appear homogeneous. However, general relativity is needed to understand not only small dense systems, but large diffuse systems such as the Universe, and according to Einstein’s field equations, the spacetime corresponding to a homogeneous universe can not be used to represent a spatially averaged inhomogeneous universe.
Qualitatively it is not hard to see how under special relativity maintains a homogeneous expansion under a boost. If you have two equidistant galaxies some light years away in opposite direction they share essentially the same Hubble shift. Now boost an observer in the direction of one of the galaxies, say A. The redshift of galaxy A is decreased while the other increases. However, under SR this observer now measures the distance to galaxy A as shorter, hence galaxy A has proper distance as defined by that observer that warrants labeling the decreased redshift as a constant indicator of that proper distance. Visa versa for galaxy B. Hence under boost the Hubble law remains a valid constant. The homogeneity of the Hubble constant is not frame dependent under special relativity.
Under GR, under a change of gravitation depth, the observational effects are essentially the same for both galaxies. Given that light speed defines both time and distance for each observer, contains the very definition of relativistic simultaneity, the isotropy remains even more generally. This doesn't conflict with the quoted paper since this does not entail a statement of how homogeneous the Universe actually is, only how boost and gravitational depths can effect an observers measure of that homogeneity.
So I ask, how do you empirically justify that only a particular set of observers see the universe as homogeneous and isotropic? It seems to me that if what you claim is actually true then we should be able to measure distances just by the amount of anisotropy we can induce with a local boost. Not seeing that go anywhere. So explain?
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