Calculating 4 Integral: A Tan & Cos Theta Substitution

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flybyme
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Homework Statement



how would one calculate [tex]4 \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos^2 \theta}{(1 + \cos^2 \theta)^2} d \theta[/tex]?

The Attempt at a Solution



someone suggested a [tex]u = \tan \theta[/tex] substitution, but i don't understand why and how this would help me. couldn't i just use [tex]u = \cos t[/tex]?
 
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Divide top and bottom by [tex]\cos^4\theta[/tex].

The function becomes [tex]\frac{\sec^2\theta}{(\sec^2\theta+1)^2}[/tex]

Does that make [tex]u=\tan\theta[/tex] looks like a good move?

u = cos t is probably a bad move, because du = -sin t dt and the sin t doesn't cancel with anything.
 
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AlephZero said:
Divide top and bottom by [tex]\cos^4\theta[/tex].

The function becomes [tex]\frac{\sec^2\theta}{(\sec^2\theta+1)^2}[/tex]

Does that make [tex]u=\tan\theta[/tex] looks like a good move?

the only trig functions we learn here are tan, cos and sin, so I'm not really sure... :)

u = cos t is probably a bad move, because du = -sin t dt and the sin t doesn't cancel with anything.

wouldn't i get du = -sin t dt = -sqrt(1 - cos^2 t) = -sqrt(1 - u^2) dt?

because then the integral should translate to [tex]-4 \int_1^0 \frac{u^2}{ (u^2+1)(1-u^2)^{1/2} } du[/tex], or am i wrong?
 
flybyme said:
the only trig functions we learn here are tan, cos and sin, so I'm not really sure... :)



I agree with what you had in the last post, except, wouldn't it be (1+u^2)^2 in the denominator? Anyway, now what?
 
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yeah, I've never understood why that is so...
 
flybyme said:
the only trig functions we learn here are tan, cos and sin, so I'm not really sure... :)



wouldn't i get du = -sin t dt = -sqrt(1 - cos^2 t) = -sqrt(1 - u^2) dt?

because then the integral should translate to [tex]-4 \int_1^0 \frac{u^2}{ (u^2+1)(1-u^2)^{1/2} } du[/tex], or am i wrong?

what is the derivative of [tex]\tan \theta[/tex]?
 
I edited my post just a little too late... isn't it [tex](u^2 + 1)^2[/tex] in the denominator?
 
drpizza said:
I edited my post just a little too late... isn't it [tex](u^2 + 1)^2[/tex] in the denominator?

oops. yeah, that's right.
 
mjsd said:
also do you know [tex]1+\tan^2\theta =\sec^2\theta[/tex]?

no, i didn't know that. :)

so i would get [tex]4 \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\sec^2 \theta}{(\sec^2 \theta + 1)^2} d \theta = 4 \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\tan^2 \theta + 1}{(\tan^2 \theta + 2)^2} d \theta = 4 \int_0^{\Omega} \frac{u^2 + 1}{(u^2 + 2)^2(u^2 + 1)} du = 4 \int_0^{\Omega} \frac{du}{(u^2 + 2)^2}[/tex]

as [tex]u = \tan \theta[/tex] and [tex]du = (1 + \tan^2 \theta) d \theta = (1 + u^2) d \theta[/tex].

does that seem correct? I'm unsure on what [tex]\Omega[/tex] would be though, as [tex]\tan \pi/2 = \infty[/tex]
 
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Ahh Nope, [tex]\int \frac{\sec^2\theta}{(\sec^2\theta+1)^2} d\theta[/tex] becomes [tex]\int \frac{1}{u^2} du[/tex] when u = tan theta, because the derivative of tan theta is (sec theta)^2.

In case you don't know Sec x = 1/(cos x) by definition.
 
Gib Z said:
Ahh Nope, [tex]\int \frac{\sec^2\theta}{(\sec^2\theta+1)^2} d\theta[/tex] becomes [tex]\int \frac{1}{u^2} du[/tex] when u = tan theta

Oops... you mean [tex]\int \frac{1}{(u^2+2)^2} du[/tex]

1 + tan^2 x = sec^2 x

NOT 1 + sec^x = tan^2 x !

(And even if that was true, it would have been u^4 not u^2)
 
[tex]\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi }{2}}\frac{\cos ^{2}x}{\left( 1+\cos ^{2}x\right) ^{2}}dx=\allowbreak \int_{0}^{\infty }\frac{1}{\left( 1+p^{2}\right) ^{2}\left( 1+\frac{1}{1+p^{2}}\right) ^{2}}\,dp=\int_{0}^{\infty }\frac{1}{\left( 2+p^{2}\right) ^{2}}\,dp\allowbreak[/tex]

[tex]=\allowbreak \int_{0}^{\frac{1}{2}\pi }\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4+4\tan ^{2}q}\,dq=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{2}\pi }\cos ^{2}q \ {} \ dq=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}\frac{\pi }{4}=\frac{\pi\sqrt{2}}{16}[/tex]