Calculating Capacitor Ripple Voltage: Ideal vs ESR of 0.2 Ohms

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around calculating capacitor ripple voltage in a power electronics context, specifically comparing an ideal capacitor to one with an equivalent series resistance (ESR) of 0.2 Ohms. For the ideal case, the ripple voltage can be determined using the integral of the current over time, while the presence of ESR introduces an additional voltage drop due to resistance. Participants clarify that the total voltage drop for the ESR case can be expressed as the sum of the integral of current and the product of current and resistance. It is emphasized that the average value of the ripple must remain zero over one cycle, ensuring that the capacitor voltage also has no DC component. The discussion concludes with participants confirming their calculations and initial conditions for both scenarios.
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Homework Statement


This homework problem is for my power electronics course I am currently taking.

The network shown to the right (SEE ATTACHED IMAGE) is used to
study the output voltage ripple of particular
types of dc-to-dc converters. Note that \tilde{i}(t)
and \tilde{v}_C(t) represent ripple quantities that
have zero average value – they are not
phasors. Sketch the capacitor ripple voltage,
assuming the capacitor is 10 \muF and is …
a. ideal.
b. has an ESR of 0.2 Ohms


Homework Equations



Equation 1:
i(t)=C\frac{d}{dt}v(t)

Equation 2:
ESR=R_{lead}+\frac{1}{R_{leakage}(\omega C)^2}

The Attempt at a Solution



So for part A, I believe all I do is solve Equation 1 for voltage above by integration of a piecewise function that defines the current i(t). Not so bad.

Part B is what is confusing me. If the capacitor now has an associated resistance with it, it can essentially be modeled as a capacitor and resistor in series. To me this means that an impedance with a real and imaginary part is created. But this is confusing because the problem says they are not phasors, and this is apparent by what the solution will be for the voltage for part A (a piecewise function made up of quadratic expressions). I am not sure how to incorporate this resistance in what the ripple voltage will look like.

 

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In part (a), Vc = (1/C)integral of i dt.
What is the corresponding expression for part (b) for which ESR = R?
 
That is what is confusing me. That equation is derived in the following way.

q(t)=C v(t)
\frac{d}{dt}q(t)=\frac{d}{dt}C v(t)
i(t)=C \frac{d}{dt}v(t)

When now there is a resistance, I am not sure which ones of these quantities changes. My only thought is to say that when there is a series resistance, it adds a voltage drop of i(t)R So the total voltage drop becomes the following.

V=\frac{1}{C}q+IR
\frac{d}{dt}V=\frac{1}{C}\frac{d}{dt}q+\frac{d}{dt}IR
\frac{d}{dt}V=\frac{1}{C}I+\frac{dI}{dt}R

Integrating both sides with respect to t gives the following.

V=\frac{1}{C}\int I dt + IR

Writing it in the problems notation it would be.

\tilde{v}(t)=\frac{1}{C}\int \tilde{i}(t) dt + \tilde{i}(t)RWould this be correct?
 
Xyius said:
That is what is confusing me. That equation is derived in the following way.

q(t)=C v(t)
\frac{d}{dt}q(t)=\frac{d}{dt}C v(t)
i(t)=C \frac{d}{dt}v(t)

When now there is a resistance, I am not sure which ones of these quantities changes. My only thought is to say that when there is a series resistance, it adds a voltage drop of i(t)R So the total voltage drop becomes the following.

V=\frac{1}{C}q+IR
\frac{d}{dt}V=\frac{1}{C}\frac{d}{dt}q+\frac{d}{dt}IR
\frac{d}{dt}V=\frac{1}{C}I+\frac{dI}{dt}R

Integrating both sides with respect to t gives the following.

V=\frac{1}{C}\int I dt + IR

Writing it in the problems notation it would be.

\tilde{v}(t)=\frac{1}{C}\int \tilde{i}(t) dt + \tilde{i}(t)RWould this be correct?

Yes.
Since you already have the graph for R=0 it should be very easy to add the IR term, right?
 
rude man said:
Yes. \tilde{v}(t)=\frac{1}{C}\int \tilde{i}(t) dt + \tilde{i}(t)R
Since you already have the graph for R=0 it should be very easy to add the IR term, right?

Remember the area under a complete cycle is zero.
 
This is what I got (See attached). The top is the ideal case. Seems correct. For the second part, I simply added 0.2 multiplied by the piece-wise functions I got earlier for the current. Was this the correct way to do this?
 

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Xyius said:
This is what I got (See attached). The top is the ideal case. Seems correct. For the second part, I simply added 0.2 multiplied by the piece-wise functions I got earlier for the current. Was this the correct way to do this?

This may be OK but the areas over and under the curve for one cycle should be the same. That's because the dc (average) content of i(t) = 0 and so the capacitor voltage must also have zero dc component over 1 cycle. And of course so must Ri(t).

In graphing parts (a) and (b) did you have Vc(t=0) = 0? If so, then V(0) = 0 for part (a) and V(0) = -R for part (b).
 
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When I was solving the integral equation I set Vc(t=0) to zero. Hope that was okay.

Thank you for all your help!
 
Xyius said:
When I was solving the integral equation I set Vc(t=0) to zero. Hope that was okay.

Thank you for all your help!
 
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