Calculating Centre of Mass Energy in Fixed Target Interactions with the LHC

leoflindall
Messages
38
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



The proposed maximum colliding beam energy, Ec, in the Large Hadron Collider is 7TeV per beam (proton-proton collisions). By a Lorenz transformation, show clearly that to produce the same centre of mass energy in a 'fixed target' interaction, the beam energy woulr have to be \frac{2E^{2}_{c}}{M_{p}}, where mp is the proton mass and it is assumed that the beam energy is very much greater then MpC2.

Homework Equations



E=mc2

E=pc

E2=p2c2 + (mc2)2



The Attempt at a Solution




I don't think this is particularly hard but I can't see how to approach this problem. I though maybe take the total relativistic energy to be equal to the kinetic energy + the rest energy, and then rearrange for the required equation but I can't get it to work for me.

I would appreciate if anyone could tell em how to approach this problem?

Many Thanks

Leo
 
Physics news on Phys.org


The key thing to remember is that for any system with total energy E and momentum p, the quantity E2-c2p2 is a scalar (frame independent): the squared rest energy.

You need to work in two frames: the centre of mass frame, and the frame in which one beam is at rest. Equate the invariant rest energy for each single beam and for the whole system in each frame.
 


Cheers for the help! Worked it out now!

Many thanks

Leo
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top