Calculating Magnetic Field to Overcome Friction in Metal Wire Setup

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on calculating the magnetic field required to move a metal wire on plastic rails, considering the coefficient of friction and the current flowing through the wire. The user equates the net frictional force with the magnetic force but encounters a discrepancy in the expected formula, which introduces a square root function of the coefficient of friction. Participants question the validity of this formula, noting that an increase in friction should not decrease the required magnetic field. The conversation reveals a lack of references in standard textbooks for the peculiar formula provided, indicating potential confusion or error in the problem. The participants express frustration over the complexity and seek clarity on the physics involved.
Dr.Brain
Messages
537
Reaction score
2
Ok there are two plastic rails over which a metal wire is kept , the wire is kept prependicular to both plastic rails , over the rails.. The coefficient of friction is 'n' between the metal and the plastic . The mass of the plastic wire is 'm' , Calculate the magnitude of the Magnetic field B , which just allows the wire to move.

I equate dthe net frictional force which will try to limit the motion , with the Magnetic force given by ILB , but in the answer instead of 'n' . there is some square root fuction of 'n'in the denominator and n in the numerator. , please help.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The wire will feel no force at all unles there is a current going through it. What information do you have about the current in this wire? I'm assuming this is not a magnetic wire (not iron or cobalt)?
 
ok the current in the wire is 'i' .
 
I assume there is also an "L" given. In that case you are exactly right. B=('n'mg)/(IL)
 
but the answer is given to be : nmg / (IL)[sqrt(1+n(^2)]
 
What level of physics is this? High school or college, and is it calculus based? Are you using differential equations?

I can not think of any reason why increasing the coefficient of friction should decrease the required magnetic field to start moving an object by the lorentz force. This is either an advanced, peculiar property I don't know about, or a mistake.

ANyone else want this one?
 
Last edited:
I am in my first year at a tech-school , and this is Physics-II which we r taught in the second semester , but I think it doesn't matter what level i am studing , i just need to solve the problem. Use calculus or whatever .
 
I've looked in six college textbooks, and I can't find any reference to that peculiar formula. Sorry, but I'm done here :frown:
 
Back
Top