Calculating Maximum Bending Stress for a Beam - I'm Doing it Wrong!

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the maximum bending stress in a beam, where the original calculations were found to be incorrect. The participant initially calculated the maximum bending moment as 12.04 kNm and the bending stress as approximately 37.9 MPa but was advised to apply the parallel axis theorem for accurate moment of inertia calculations. Clarifications were provided regarding the centroids of the beam's cross-section and the need to adjust the moment of inertia for the areas being subtracted. The participant ultimately confirmed their understanding and expressed gratitude for the assistance received. Accurate application of the parallel axis theorem is crucial for determining the correct maximum bending stress.
songtoan92
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bending stress in beam, help me !

Homework Statement



untitled-1.jpg

Homework Equations



singularity function

bending stress (max) = { (M max)/I } * ( a/2)

The Attempt at a Solution



after writing the singularity function, and compute reactions force I found that the maximum bending moment should be 12.04 kNm

I = 1/12 ( 0.1 * 0.14 ^ 3 - 2 * 0.06 * 0.04 ^ 3 ) (m ^ 4)

y/2 = 0.14 /2 = 0.07 m

therefore, the maximum bending stress is ~ 37.9 MPa

but this is totally wrong :( :(, can anyone help with

thank you very much
 
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Hi songtoan92, welcome to PF. Your maximum bending moment looks fine. Make sure to use the parallel axis theorem when subtracting the moment of inertia of the missing areas of the cross-section, though, since they're not centered on the centroid of the beam. Know what I mean?
 


Mapes said:
Hi songtoan92, welcome to PF. Your maximum bending moment looks fine. Make sure to use the parallel axis theorem when subtracting the moment of inertia of the missing areas of the cross-section, though, since they're not centered on the centroid of the beam. Know what I mean?

Can you explain me more ?? I am a little bit confused now
Personally , I think , " I " is the 2nd moment of area, so considering the " H " cross-section of the beam I got I =... I think it does not a matter of moment of parallel axis theorem here ?
 


Moment of inertia is another common name for second moment of area.
In any case, your calculation of I involves subtracting two areas of 60 mm x 40 mm. But the second moment of area of these regions is not simply wh^3/12 because their centroids do not coincide with the centroid of the beam. Rather, their centroids are 50 mm away from the beam centroid. So I is calculated as I=wh^3/12+whr^2, where r=50\,\mathrm{mm}. (This is called the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parallel_axis_theorem" .) Try this and see if you get the answer you're expecting.
 
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Mapes said:
Moment of inertia is another common name for second moment of area.
In any case, your calculation of I involves subtracting two areas of 60 mm x 40 mm. But the second moment of area of these regions is not simply wh^3/12 because their centroids do not coincide with the centroid of the beam. Rather, their centroids are 50 mm away from the beam centroid. So I is calculated as I=wh^3/12+whr^2, where r=50\,\mathrm{mm}. (This is called the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parallel_axis_theorem" .) Try this and see if you get the answer you're expecting.

So,...

I1 (of the outer rectangular) = 1 / 12 * 0.1 * 0.14 ^ 3 + 0.1 * 0.14 * 0.05 ^ 2
I2 (of the inner rectangular) = 1 / 12 * 0.06 * 0.04 ^ 3 + 0.04 * 0.06 * 0.05 ^ 2

and the I final = I1 - 2I2 ~ 4.5 * 10E-05

is that right ??
 
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You don't need to use r=50\,\mathrm{mm} for the large rectangle. Its centroid coincides with the beam centroid.
 


Mapes said:
You don't need to use r=50\,\mathrm{mm} for the large rectangle. Its centroid coincides with the beam centroid.

I 've got it, thank you for your help :D
 
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