Calculating the EMF in the coil while the field is changing

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The discussion revolves around calculating the induced electromotive force (emf) in a coil with 200 turns as a uniform magnetic field changes from 0 to 0.500 T over 0.80 seconds. The formula used is emf = N * (Δ(BAcosθ) / Δt), where the area of the coil is 0.18 m². A key point of confusion is the use of cos 90, which equals zero; however, since the magnetic field is applied perpendicularly to the coil, the correct angle is actually 0 degrees, making cos 0 equal to 1. This means the angle does not affect the final calculation of the induced emf, which is determined to be 4.10 V. Understanding the angle's role in the calculation is crucial for correctly applying the formula.
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Homework Statement


A coil with 200 turns of wire is wrapped on an 18.0 cm square frame. Each turn has the same area, equal to that of the frame, and the total resistance of the coil is 2.0Ω . A uniform magnetic field is applied perpendicularly to the plane of the coil. If the field changes uniformly from 0 to 0.500 T in 0.80 s, find the magnitude of the induced emf in the coil while the field has changed

Homework Equations


emf =N* (Δ(BAcosθ) / Δt)

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm having trouble understanding the answer to the problem. In a solution to this question I seen, the answer is gotten from doing this calculation:
emf = [(200)*(0.500-0)*(0.18*0.18)*cos 90] / 0.80
and the answer equals to 4.10 V.
What I don't understand is why do you multiply by the cos 90?
cos 90 in degrees is 0 and in radians it is -0.4480736...
Doing the calculation without the cos 90 will get that answer, so why is it in the equation?
 
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Ly444999 said:
What I don't understand is why do you multiply by the cos 90?
You need to make sure that you're using the correct angle. Check your notes or text to see when the angle is used and what it is the angle between.

Ly444999 said:
cos 90 in degrees is 0 and in radians it is -0.4480736...
Although you will find that the actual angle involved won't be 90°, note that 90° is equivalent to ##\pi/2## radians, and they are in fact the same angle and have the same cosine value: zero.
 
gneill said:
You need to make sure that you're using the correct angle. Check your notes or text to see when the angle is used and what it is the angle between.
So would no angle at all be used in this case?
 
Ly444999 said:
So would no angle at all be used in this case?
There's an angle, but thanks to the particular geometry specified for the problem it has a value that doesn't affect the calculated result. You should make sure that you understand what that angle actually represents.
 
gneill said:
There's an angle, but thanks to the particular geometry specified for the problem it has a value that doesn't affect the calculated result. You should make sure that you understand what that angle actually represents.
I'm not sure if I'm following but, since the magnetic field is applied perpendicularly to the plane of the coil, the angle is actually 0 instead of 90?
 
Ly444999 said:
I'm not sure if I'm following but, since the magnetic field is applied perpendicularly to the plane of the coil, the angle is actually 0 instead of 90?
Yes.
 
gneill said:
Yes.
Thanks for your help!
 
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