Calculating Weak Interaction Processes: Four Fermion Invariants in Fermi-Theory

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on calculating weak interaction processes within the framework of Fermi-theory, specifically examining the invariants formed by four Dirac spinors. The key point is that the amplitude must be a linear combination of vector*vector and axialvector*axialvector components, while the axialvector*vector components must equal zero. The confusion arises from the relationship between the gamma matrices, particularly the equation γ5γαγα = 4γ5, which leads to questions about the conditions under which certain terms vanish.

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This discussion is beneficial for theoretical physicists, particularly those specializing in particle physics, quantum field theory researchers, and students seeking to deepen their understanding of weak interactions and Fermi-theory.

evilcman
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In calculations of weak interaction processes in the Fermi-theory,
there are some amplitudes of the form:
\bar{a}(\gamma_{\alpha} + \lambda \gamma_{\alpha}\gamma_{5}) b \bar{c}(\gamma^{\alpha} + \gamma^{\alpha}\gamma_5)d
where a,b,c,d are Dirac-spinors. Now, if this is a Lorentz-scalar. In that case
it should be a linear combination of a vector*vector and axialvector*axialvector parts,
meaning that axialvector*vector parts should give zero, that is:
\bar{a}\gamma_{\alpha}\gamma_{5} b \bar{c}\gamma^{\alpha}d = 0
should hold. Can someone show this?

In fact I am a bit confused since \gamma_5 \gamma_{\alpha} \gamma^{\alpha} = 4 \gamma_5, so if i take for example a=b=c=d, that thing
does not seem to vanish, which does not make sense to me.

Thanks in advance.
 
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You need an A*V piece if you want the weak interaction to violate parity.
 
You are right. My bad.
 

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