Calculating Work, Potential Energy, and Kinetic Energy of a Block on an Incline

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The work done by the force T on a block pulled up a frictionless incline is calculated as W = T*L, while the net work is W = TL - mg sin(a). The potential energy at position L is given by U = mgLsin(a). The kinetic energy can be derived from the work-energy principle, resulting in KE = -W - PE, which simplifies correctly. To find acceleration as a function of position, Newton's second law yields a = (T - mg sin(a))/m, but substituting values shows the block does not accelerate, maintaining a velocity of zero throughout the motion.
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There's a block of mass M that's pulled up an incline by a force T. The block starts from rest and is pulled a distance L by the force T. The incline, which is frictionless, makes an angle (a) with respect to the horizontal.

1) Write down the work done by force T.

That would just be W = T*L right?
...Even though net work would be W = TL - mg sin (a)

2) Calculate the potential energy of the block as a function of the position L.

U = mgh = mgLsin(a), right?

3) From the work and the potential energy calculate the kinetic energy of the block as a function of position L.

Okay... so since the force is conserved, KE + PE + W = 0, right??
So KE = -W - PE
= - (TL - mg sin (a)) - mgLsin(a))

Is that correct or no??

4) Calculate the acceleration of the block, a, as a function of position L. Calculate the velocity from the acceleration and kinetic energy as a function of position. Show that the kinetic energies calculated in these two ways are equivalent.

I can't get this part to work. I put acceleration = F/M = (T-mg sin (a)) / m but how do I get it in terms of L? And how do I integrate the acceleration function with respect to L??

Thank you! All help is greatly appreciated!
 
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The acceleration of the block can be calculated using Newton's second law: a = F/M. In this case, the force is the tension T minus the weight of the block, mgsin(a). Therefore, the acceleration is given by a = (T-mgsin(a))/m. To calculate the velocity from the acceleration and kinetic energy, we can use the equation v^2 = 2KE/m. Substituting in the expression for KE from above, we get v^2 = 2(-TL + mgsin(a) + mgLsin(a))/m. Simplifying this yields v^2 = 2(mgLsin(a) - TL)/m. To show that the two ways of calculating the kinetic energy are equivalent, we can integrate the expression for v^2 with respect to L. Integrating both sides of the equation yields ∫v^2dL = 2∫[(mgLsin(a) - TL)/m]dL. Solving this gives v^2 = 2KE/m, as expected.
 


1) Yes, the work done by force T would be W = T*L. This is because the force is acting in the same direction as the displacement of the block.

2) The potential energy of the block at a position L can be calculated as U = mgh = mgLsin(a). This is the potential energy due to the block's position on the incline.

3) Yes, your calculation for the kinetic energy is correct. The net work done on the block by all forces (T and gravity) would be equal to the change in kinetic energy, which is why KE = -W - PE.

4) To calculate the acceleration as a function of position, we can use Newton's second law, F = ma. In this case, the net force acting on the block is T - mg sin(a), so we can rewrite this as T - mg sin(a) = ma. Since we know that T = ma, we can substitute this into the equation to get a = (T - mg sin(a))/m. Now, to get this in terms of L, we can substitute T = mgLsin(a), which gives us a = (mgLsin(a) - mg sin(a))/m = g(sin(a) - sin(a))/m = 0. This means that the block will not have any acceleration on the incline.

To calculate the velocity from the acceleration, we can use the equation v^2 = u^2 + 2as, where u is the initial velocity (which is 0 in this case), a is the acceleration, and s is the displacement. In this case, we know that s = L, so v^2 = 0 + 2(0)(L) = 0. This means that the velocity of the block at any position on the incline will be 0, which makes sense since the block starts from rest and does not have any acceleration.

To show that the two ways of calculating kinetic energy are equivalent, we can use the formula KE = 1/2mv^2. Using the equation we found for velocity, we get KE = 1/2m(0)^2 = 0. This is the same result we got when we calculated KE using the work and potential energy equations, so we can see that they are equivalent.

I hope this helps clarify your understanding of the problem. Keep practicing and you'll get the hang of it!
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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