Can Someone Explain This Trig Picture to Me?

Meadman23
Messages
43
Reaction score
0
Its the attached picture. I'm not seeing why when using the dot product, they start using sin.
 

Attachments

  • untitled.JPG
    untitled.JPG
    8.8 KB · Views: 448
Last edited:
Mathematics news on Phys.org
The picture is self explanatory. If you know trig, it should be elementary.
 
Projections onto different axes.
 
I'm just not getting it. '
I see that the angle between r and x is phi, thus in using the formula, r (dot) x = (1)(1) cos(phi).

Then I see the angle between r and y is (90-phi), thus in using the formula, r (dot) y = (1)(1)cos(90-phi) = sin (phi).

I then see the angle between phi and x is (90 +phi), thus in using the formula, phi (dot) x = (1)(1)cos(90+phi) = -sin (phi)

I then see the angle between phi and y is (180 - phi), thus in using the formula, phi (dot) y = (1)(1)cos(180-phi) = -cos (phi)?

I don't get why the last one is +cos(phi)...
 
Look at the blue part of the diagram ... phi(dot)y = cos(phi).
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
I'm interested to know whether the equation $$1 = 2 - \frac{1}{2 - \frac{1}{2 - \cdots}}$$ is true or not. It can be shown easily that if the continued fraction converges, it cannot converge to anything else than 1. It seems that if the continued fraction converges, the convergence is very slow. The apparent slowness of the convergence makes it difficult to estimate the presence of true convergence numerically. At the moment I don't know whether this converges or not.
Back
Top