Je m'appelle
- 117
- 0
I just need to understand the following
\int f(x,y) \partial y\ is\ solvable\ for\ 'y'\ as\ the\ variable\ and\ 'x'\ as\ a\ constant\ while,
\int f(x,y) dy\ is\ impossible\ to\ solve.
Is this correct? If so, could anyone please provide me with evidence for this?
Thanks in advance.
\int f(x,y) \partial y\ is\ solvable\ for\ 'y'\ as\ the\ variable\ and\ 'x'\ as\ a\ constant\ while,
\int f(x,y) dy\ is\ impossible\ to\ solve.
Is this correct? If so, could anyone please provide me with evidence for this?
Thanks in advance.