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I was going over a proof in which the following is given:
if abb=bba and b is of odd order, then ab=ba (i.e. if b^2 centralizes a then so does b)
I'm not sure why this is so. Any clarification would be appreciated.
Cheers,
W. =)
if abb=bba and b is of odd order, then ab=ba (i.e. if b^2 centralizes a then so does b)
I'm not sure why this is so. Any clarification would be appreciated.
Cheers,
W. =)