Emspak
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Homework Statement
Given: \frac{1}{2}m (\dot x)^2 + mg x = E
Gravitational force is mg.
We need to show that by solving this DE that we can confirm that the conservation of energy correctly describes one-dimensional motion (the motion in a uniform field). That is, that the same motion is obtained as predicted by Newton' equation of motion. I had this up as a thread before -- (thanks to tiny-tim!) but I discovered that there might have been some bad errors in my original set-up. So I wanted to see if I corrected those.
The Attempt at a Solution
My attempt was as follows:
\frac{1}{2}m\dot x + mg x = E so by moving things around a bit I can reduce this to
(\dot x)^2 = \frac{2(E - mgx)}{m}
and from there I can solve the DE:
\dot x = \sqrt{\frac{2(E - mgx)}{m}} \Rightarrow \int dx =\int \sqrt{\frac{2(E - mgx)}{m}}dt
from there I can move some variables some more, in my initial attempt I left the \sqrt{2} on the right but this time I will move it over:
\frac{\sqrt{m}}{\sqrt{2(E-mgx)}} \int dx = \int dt \Rightarrow \frac{\sqrt{m}}{\sqrt{2}} \int \frac{dx}{{\sqrt{E-mgx}}} = \int dt
trying a u substitution where u=\sqrt{E-mgx} and du = -mgdx I should have \frac{\sqrt{m}}{-mg \sqrt{2}} \int \frac{du}{{\sqrt{u}}} = \int dt which gets me to \frac{2\sqrt{m}}{mg\sqrt{2}} \sqrt{u} + c = t
going back to what I substituted for u I have:
\frac{2 \sqrt{m}}{mg \sqrt{2}} \sqrt{E-mgx} + c = t
and when I do the algebra I get (after moving the c over and squaring both sides):
\frac{4m}{2m^2g^2}({E-mgx}) = t^2 - 2ct+ c^2
\frac{2E}{mg^2}-\frac{2x}{g} = {2}t^2 - 2ct+ c^2
-\frac{2x}{g} =-\frac{2E}{mg^2}+ {2}t^2 - 2ct+ c^2
x(t) =\frac{E}{mg}- gt^2 + cgt- \frac{c^2g}{2}
From here I plug in the equation for kinetic energy. E = (1/2) mv^2 which in this case would be \frac{E}{mg} = \frac{(1/2) mg^2t^2}{mg} = \frac{1}{2}gt^2
which changes my x(t) expression to:
x(t) =-\frac{1}{2}gt^2 + cgt- \frac{c^2g}{2}
That looks like an equation of motion to me. And if we take a derivative of the original expression we get:
\frac{1}{2}m \dot x \ddot x + \frac{1}{2}m \dot x \ddot x + mg \dot x = 0 \Rightarrow m \dot x \ddot x + mg \dot x = 0
and that shows that g=\ddot x. Maybe that's what we were shooting for in the first place.
and looking at the x(t) expression I got, we can replace g with \ddot x and that makes x(t) into:
x(t) =-\frac{1}{2}x + c\dot x- \frac{c^2}{2}\ddot x
I feel like I am close here, but not quite there. So I am hoping someone can tell me where I messed up.