Circular Wilson Loop, minimal surface in AdS5

physicus
Messages
52
Reaction score
3

Homework Statement


Consider AdS_5 space in Poincaré coordinates with metric ds^2=\frac{dz^2+dx_\mu dx^\mu}{z^2}. There is a circular Wilson Loop with Radius R in the Minkowskian boundary of AdS_5. We want to find the surface of minimal area in AdS_5 that has this loop as boundary.

We choose to parametrize the surface with cylindircal coordinates: x_1=r\cos{\theta}, x_2=r\sin{\theta}, z=f(r) and x_0=x_3=0.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



The area is
\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta\int_0^R dr\; r\sqrt{\underset{\alpha\beta}{\det}{g_{mn}(\partial_\alpha X^m \partial_\beta X^n})}
=\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta\int_0^R dr\; r\frac{1}{z^2}\sqrt{{\det}\begin{pmatrix} (\partial_\theta x_1)^2+(\partial_\theta x_2)^2 & \partial_\theta x_1 \partial_r x_1+\partial_\theta x_2 \partial_r x_2 \\ \partial_r x_1 \partial_\theta x_1+\partial_r x_2 \partial_\theta x_2 & (\partial_r z)^2+(\partial_r x_1)^2+(\partial_r x_2)^2\end{pmatrix}}
=\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta\int_0^R dr\; r\frac{1}{f(r)^2}\sqrt{{\det}\begin{pmatrix} r^2 & 0 \\ 0 & 1+f'(r)^2 \end{pmatrix}}
=\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta\int_0^R dr\; \frac{r^2}{f(r)^2}\sqrt{1+f'(r)^2}
=2\pi\int_0^R dr\; \frac{r^2}{f(r)^2}\sqrt{1+f'(r)^2}

I have tried to solve this by treating \frac{r^2}{f(r)}\sqrt{1+f'(r)^2} as Lagrangian and solving the equations of motion. But that just becomes incredibly messy. Is there a mistake up to this point? Does anyone know a nicer method to solve this? Do you know where to find the solution?

Thanks for any support!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
physicus said:

Homework Statement


Consider AdS_5 space in Poincaré coordinates with metric ds^2=\frac{dz^2+dx_\mu dx^\mu}{z^2}. There is a circular Wilson Loop with Radius R in the Minkowskian boundary of AdS_5. We want to find the surface of minimal area in AdS_5 that has this loop as boundary.

We choose to parametrize the surface with cylindircal coordinates: x_1=r\cos{\theta}, x_2=r\sin{\theta}, z=f(r) and x_0=x_3=0.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



The area is
\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta\int_0^R dr\; r\sqrt{\underset{\alpha\beta}{\det}{g_{mn}(\partial_\alpha X^m \partial_\beta X^n})}
=\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta\int_0^R dr\; r\frac{1}{z^2}\sqrt{{\det}\begin{pmatrix} (\partial_\theta x_1)^2+(\partial_\theta x_2)^2 & \partial_\theta x_1 \partial_r x_1+\partial_\theta x_2 \partial_r x_2 \\ \partial_r x_1 \partial_\theta x_1+\partial_r x_2 \partial_\theta x_2 & (\partial_r z)^2+(\partial_r x_1)^2+(\partial_r x_2)^2\end{pmatrix}}
=\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta\int_0^R dr\; r\frac{1}{f(r)^2}\sqrt{{\det}\begin{pmatrix} r^2 & 0 \\ 0 & 1+f'(r)^2 \end{pmatrix}}
=\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta\int_0^R dr\; \frac{r^2}{f(r)^2}\sqrt{1+f'(r)^2}
=2\pi\int_0^R dr\; \frac{r^2}{f(r)^2}\sqrt{1+f'(r)^2}

I have tried to solve this by treating \frac{r^2}{f(r)}\sqrt{1+f'(r)^2} as Lagrangian and solving the equations of motion. But that just becomes incredibly messy. Is there a mistake up to this point? Does anyone know a nicer method to solve this? Do you know where to find the solution?

Thanks for any support!

I think in the last line you made a mistake, it should be r, not r^2.
 
Could you tell me why it is r and not r^2? Don't I get one factor of r from the Jacobian when I go to polar coordinates in the integral plus another factor of r from the determinant in the square root?
 
physicus said:
Could you tell me why it is r and not r^2? Don't I get one factor of r from the Jacobian when I go to polar coordinates in the integral plus another factor of r from the determinant in the square root?

Your factor of the square root of the induced metric is precisely what leads to the Jacobian. The factor of ##r## coming from inside the square root is the factor ##r## that you usually find in the measure for polar coordinates.

The solution is found by a conformal transformation in the original literature, which is reviewed in these lectures. If you want to solve the equation of motion directly, it will help to write it as the sum of 3 terms involving the expression ##f f' + r##. Then you can look for a solution where this expression is zero.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes 1 person
fzero said:
Your factor of the square root of the induced metric is precisely what leads to the Jacobian. The factor of ##r## coming from inside the square root is the factor ##r## that you usually find in the measure for polar coordinates.

The solution is found by a conformal transformation in the original literature, which is reviewed in these lectures. If you want to solve the equation of motion directly, it will help to write it as the sum of 3 terms involving the expression ##f f' + r##. Then you can look for a solution where this expression is zero.

Can u explain more about how to write it as the sum of 3terms involving the expression ##f f' + r##?
 
basichan said:
Can u explain more about how to write it as the sum of 3terms involving the expression ##f f' + r##?

Since this is the HW section, I really shouldn't post the equation of motion until the OP shows his attempt. In words, after expanding everything out, pulling out common factors and grouping by derivatives, you should find 5 terms. Two of these carry a factor of 2 in front and get split up into different groupings, so we can write the whole thing as 7 terms. We can then identify 3 terms corresponding to a factor of ##(ff'+r)'##. The remaining 4 terms can be written as two terms with a common factor of ##ff'+r##.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top