Classical vs. Quantum interpretation of spin 4-vector

Zoot
Messages
9
Reaction score
0
I have a few basic questions about the Pauli-Lubanski spin 4-vector S.

1. I've used it in quantum mechanical calculations as an operator, that is to say each of the components of S is a matrix operator that operates on an eigenvector or eigenspinor. But my question is about the utility of S in a classical sense, that is to say it represents the physical spin angular momentum. For example, in an electron's rest frame, is the spin 4-vector for the case spin-up along the z-axis given by S = (0, 0, 0, h/2) and for spin-down along x we have S = (0, -h/2, 0, 0) etc?

2. I know that in the particle's rest frame S = (0, Sx, Sy, Sz) where the spatial components are the spin angular momentum 3-vector components. However, when we Lorentz boost S, the time component is no longer zero. In this boosted case, do the 3 spatial components still give the spin angular momentum 3-vector (analogous to the case for 4-momentum where the 3 spatial components always give the 3-momentum), or do the spatial components now mean something else? The reason I'm not sure is that some 4-vectors, e.g. 4-velocity, have spatial components that do not represent 3-velocity at all since they may be superluminal, etc.

Thanks for any help on this!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You should try to express the relativistic total angular momentum tensor in it's rest frame in terms of the LS vector. Then look how this tensor transforms under boosts!
 
Last edited:
I would like to know the validity of the following criticism of one of Zeilinger's latest papers https://doi.org/10.48550/arXiv.2507.07756 "violation of bell inequality with unentangled photons" The review is by Francis Villatoro, in Spanish, https://francis.naukas.com/2025/07/26/sin-entrelazamiento-no-se-pueden-incumplir-las-desigualdades-de-bell/ I will translate and summarize the criticism as follows: -It is true that a Bell inequality is violated, but not a CHSH inequality. The...
I understand that the world of interpretations of quantum mechanics is very complex, as experimental data hasn't completely falsified the main deterministic interpretations (such as Everett), vs non-deterministc ones, however, I read in online sources that Objective Collapse theories are being increasingly challenged. Does this mean that deterministic interpretations are more likely to be true? I always understood that the "collapse" or "measurement problem" was how we phrased the fact that...
This is not, strictly speaking, a discussion of interpretations per se. We often see discussions based on QM as it was understood during the early days and the famous Einstein-Bohr debates. The problem with this is that things in QM have advanced tremendously since then, and the 'weirdness' that puzzles those attempting to understand QM has changed. I recently came across a synopsis of these advances, allowing those interested in interpretational issues to understand the modern view...
Back
Top