- #1
McLaren Rulez
- 292
- 3
Hi,
If we have two commuting operators A and B, is true that any function of A will commute with any function of B? I have a result which takes [itex][L_{z},r^{2}]=0[/itex] and claims that [itex][L_{z},r]=0[/itex]. How can this be proved? Thank you
If we have two commuting operators A and B, is true that any function of A will commute with any function of B? I have a result which takes [itex][L_{z},r^{2}]=0[/itex] and claims that [itex][L_{z},r]=0[/itex]. How can this be proved? Thank you