Condition for expectation value of an operator to depend on time

AlexCdeP
Messages
39
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement



A particle is in a 1D harmonic oscillator potential. Under what conditions will the
expectation value of an operator Q (no explicit time dependence) depend on time if
(i) the particle is initially in a momentum eigenstate?
(ii) the particle is initially in an energy eigenstate?

Homework Equations



The first two parts of this question required me to show that

\frac{d}{dt}<Q> = \frac{i}{hbar} <[H,Q]> + <\frac{d}{dt}Q>

Q is any hermitian operator. I did this fine and then derived the virial theorem from this, which is where the rate of change of the expectation for Q is zero. I'm assuming I'm supposed to use this equation to find the conditions, but to be perfectly honest I have no idea how to approach this at all.

I know that if the operator commutes with the Hamiltonian H then it will have no dependence on time, but how can I use this to answer the question?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Please delete this post.
 
Last edited:
davidchen9568 said:
Please delete this post.

Thanks for the help david, what a complete waste of both of our time. Maybe it's far too obvious for you? I have no idea what's wrong with my post, so it'd be great if you could enlighten me.
 
I think David meant he wanted his post deleted, not your thread.
 
Oh sorry, apologies if that's the case.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top