- #1
chill_factor
- 898
- 5
A theorm I took down in class says:
Consider the analytic function f(z). The mapping w=f(z) is conformal at the point z0 if and only if df/dz at z0 is non-zero.
However, if df/dz does not exist at that point z0, is that point still a conformal mapping? That would make the function non-analytic and this wouldn't apply right?
Consider the analytic function f(z). The mapping w=f(z) is conformal at the point z0 if and only if df/dz at z0 is non-zero.
However, if df/dz does not exist at that point z0, is that point still a conformal mapping? That would make the function non-analytic and this wouldn't apply right?
