Luna=Luna
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This is probably going to be a very simple question, i just need justification for a seemingly simple step in a proof.
The statement is as follows:
An endomorphism T of an inner product space is {0} if and only if \langle b|T|a\rangle = 0 for all |a\rangle and |b\rangle.
Now it is obvious if T is 0 then \langle b|T|a\rangle = 0
For the converse proof if \langle b|T|a\rangle = 0 for all |a\rangle and b\rangle then T = 0, it starts by choosing |b\rangle = T|a\rangle.
Why is this valid, i guess a very naive reasoning would be doesn't this only prove it for the case that |b\rangle = T|a\rangle.
The statement is as follows:
An endomorphism T of an inner product space is {0} if and only if \langle b|T|a\rangle = 0 for all |a\rangle and |b\rangle.
Now it is obvious if T is 0 then \langle b|T|a\rangle = 0
For the converse proof if \langle b|T|a\rangle = 0 for all |a\rangle and b\rangle then T = 0, it starts by choosing |b\rangle = T|a\rangle.
Why is this valid, i guess a very naive reasoning would be doesn't this only prove it for the case that |b\rangle = T|a\rangle.