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Hi everyone,
I'm brushing up on some complex analysis and I came across the following example, which is driving me crazy:
I learned that z_0 is a pole of order k of f(z) if
f(z)=\frac{g(z)}{(z-z_0)^k}
where g(z) is analytic on some open disk around z_0.
And an essential singularity is an isolated singularity that is not a pole of any order.
Then I learned that if z_0 is a pole of order k , the singular part of the Laurent series of f(z) has finitely many terms. If its an essential singularity, the singular part of the Laurent series has infinitely many terms.
Then the book gives this example:
f(z)=\frac{1}{1-z}
And right off the bat, I'm thinking 1 is a pole of order 1, since it's already in the form of the definition of a pole of order k. But when they expanded the Laurent series for this in the annulus 1 < \left|z\right| < \infty they get
\frac{1}{(1-z)} = -\frac{1}{z}-\frac{1}{z^2}-\frac{1}{z^3} - ...
So that z = 1 is actually an essential singularity. But doesn't this contradict with the fact that it's already in the form \frac{1}{(1-z)} which means its a pole?
I'm brushing up on some complex analysis and I came across the following example, which is driving me crazy:
I learned that z_0 is a pole of order k of f(z) if
f(z)=\frac{g(z)}{(z-z_0)^k}
where g(z) is analytic on some open disk around z_0.
And an essential singularity is an isolated singularity that is not a pole of any order.
Then I learned that if z_0 is a pole of order k , the singular part of the Laurent series of f(z) has finitely many terms. If its an essential singularity, the singular part of the Laurent series has infinitely many terms.
Then the book gives this example:
f(z)=\frac{1}{1-z}
And right off the bat, I'm thinking 1 is a pole of order 1, since it's already in the form of the definition of a pole of order k. But when they expanded the Laurent series for this in the annulus 1 < \left|z\right| < \infty they get
\frac{1}{(1-z)} = -\frac{1}{z}-\frac{1}{z^2}-\frac{1}{z^3} - ...
So that z = 1 is actually an essential singularity. But doesn't this contradict with the fact that it's already in the form \frac{1}{(1-z)} which means its a pole?