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https://www.physicsforums.com/index.php?threads/868492/

Now in coulombs equation you multiply the coulombs (Q1×Q2)

Ujjwal (OP in other thread) was using 2 balls charged at 2 and 3 coulombs in one of his examples.

2×3=6

But after the balls touch they are both 2.5

2.5×2.5=6.25

This means the force will be greater after the metallic balls equal out their charge.

How can electrons (or lack of) moving from ball to ball change the force in this system? I see it in the equation but it seems fundamentally wrong to me.

Can someone help me with my misconception with force?