Convering double intgral to polar coordinates

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around transforming a double integral into polar coordinates, specifically focusing on the integral of the function exp^-(x^2+y^2). The original poster expresses confusion about the transformation process and its application in a homework context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the correct expressions for variables in polar coordinates and the appropriate limits of integration. There are attempts to rewrite the integral in polar form, with some questioning the correctness of their transformations and the convergence of the resulting integrals.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging in clarifying the transformation process and addressing misconceptions. Some guidance has been provided regarding the correct use of polar coordinates and the relationship between rectangular and polar forms, but no consensus has been reached on the final expression or its evaluation.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on ensuring proper notation and understanding the geometric interpretation of the variables involved. The original poster is preparing for an exam, which adds a layer of urgency to the discussion.

oceansoft
Messages
11
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Hey am studing for my up coming exam and i am having trouble with transforming double intrgral to polar coordinates i have no idea where to start or anything so can someone explain it to me


Homework Equations


this is example

\oint^{\infty}_{0}\oint^{\infty}_{0} exp^-(x^2+y^2) dx dy

The Attempt at a Solution


like i said i have no idea about this so please help

also can someone tell me what I=\oint^{\infty}_{0} exp^(-x^2) dx relates to probability using normal distribution

Thanks :)
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
I don't think you mean circuit integrals, rather just ordinary integrals.

Let x = r cos(θ), y = r sin(θ) and dydx = r dr dθ

and use r,θ limits for the first quadrant.
 
so i get this right
\oint^{\infty}_{0}\oint^{\infty}_{0} exp^-(rcos(o)+rsin(o)) dr do
is that in polar coordinates now right? and then i just do the ingeral? and is that what i would always do when tranforming to polar?

when i did that i get left with
\oint^{\infty}_{0} (1/(sin(0)+cos(0)) do
i can't do beause the integral doesn't converge
 
Last edited:
First of all, use "\int" instead of "\oint" when you're writing an integral, unless its a line integral about a closed curve.

As for your problem, here are the steps you should take when transforming from rectangular to polar coordinates:
  1. Express the domain of integration in polar coordinates. For your integral, x and y both run from 0 to \infty, so the domain of integration is the first quadrant (the top right quadrant). To express this in polar coordinates, notice that no matter how far you are from the origin (i.e. no matter how large you make r), you can always vary \theta between 0 and \pi/2 and still stay in the first quadrant. So, r must run from 0 to \infty and \theta must run from 0 to \pi/2.
  2. Do what LCKurtz suggested above.
 
oceansoft said:
so i get this right
\oint^{\infty}_{0}\oint^{\infty}_{0} exp^-(rcos(o)+rsin(o)) dr do
is that in polar coordinates now right?

No!

First of all, read what I wrote above as to the limits of integration. Second of all, you forgot to square r\cos\theta and r\sin\theta.

Also, to give you an example of LaTeX, enclose
Code:
\int_0^\infty \int_0^\infty e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dxdy
[code]
in "TEX" tags to typeset your original integral.
 
foxjwill said:
No!

First of all, read what I wrote above as to the limits of integration. Second of all, you forgot to square r\cos\theta and r\sin\theta.

Also, to give you an example of LaTeX, enclose
Code:
\int_0^\infty \int_0^\infty e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dxdy
[code]
in "TEX" tags to typeset your original integral.[/QUOTE]

sorry for the troble but is this what it looks like then?

[tex]\int^{pi/2}_{0}[/tex][tex]\int^{\infty}_{0}[/tex] e^-(rcos^2[tex]\theta[/tex] + rsin^2[tex]\theta[/tex]) dr d[tex]\theta[/tex]

= [tex]\int^{pi/2}_{0}[/tex] 1 d[tex]\theta[/tex]

= pi/2
 
oceansoft said:
sorry for the troble but is this what it looks like then?

\int^{pi/2}_{0}\int^{\infty}_{0} e^-(rcos^2\theta + rsin^2\theta) dr d\theta

= \int^{pi/2}_{0} 1 d\theta

= pi/2

Nope. Let me ask you this: If I give you a point (x,y), can you tell me how far away from the origin it is?

Also, remember that dx\,dy = r\,dr\,d\theta, not dr\,d\theta.
 
foxjwill said:
Nope. Let me ask you this: If I give you a point (x,y), can you tell me how far away from the origin it is?

Also, remember that dx\,dy = r\,dr\,d\theta, not dr\,d\theta.

No not rly u can say its \sqrt{(x^2+y^2}
 
oceansoft said:
No not rly u can say its \sqrt{(x^2+y^2}

First of all, this is not text messaging, so please use full words. Anyway, this is correct, the distance is \sqrt{x^2+y^2}. Now, what you want to keep in mind is that the 'r' in polar coordinates is defined to be the distance from the origin--in other words, r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}.
 
  • #10
foxjwill said:
First of all, this is not text messaging, so please use full words. Anyway, this is correct, the distance is \sqrt{x^2+y^2}. Now, what you want to keep in mind is that the 'r' in polar coordinates is defined to be the distance from the origin--in other words, r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}.

Sorry for annoying you like this so the does the integral look this

\int^{pi/2}_{0}\int^{\infty}_{0} e^-(rcos^2\theta+rsin^2\theta) r dr d\theta

what am i doing wrong?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 24 ·
Replies
24
Views
4K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
3K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
4K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K