Correlation coefficient: show 1-r^2 is the ratio of 0th and 1st order models

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The discussion focuses on the correlation coefficient and its relationship with zeroth and first order models, specifically examining how 1-r^2 represents the ratio of these models. The zeroth order model is defined as E0 = Var(y), while the participants explore two methods to connect 1-r^2 with E1/E0. There is some confusion regarding the notation used, particularly the definitions of E0 and E1 in relation to the function of x. The importance of clearly defining r^2 is highlighted as a crucial part of the discussion. Overall, the conversation emphasizes the need for clarity in mathematical notation and relationships between the models.
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Homework Statement
You have a linear model y = a+bx. Using the mean square error function for a zeroth order model (b=0 and a = <y>) and a first order model b=Covariance(x,y)/Variance(x) and a = <y> - b<x> show that E1/E0 = 1-r^2
Relevant Equations
MSE function E = <(y - a -bx)^2>
Correlation coefficient r = Covariance(x,y)/Standardev(x)Standarddev(y)
Standarddev = Square root of variance
The zeroth order model gives E0 = Var(y)

I've tried two methods:
Calculating 1-r^2 and trying to get E1/E0.
Calculating E1/E0 and trying to get 1-r^2.
 
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applestrudle said:
I've tried two methods:
And what do you get?
 
@applestrudle I'm a bit confused by your notation overall. You defined E as a function of x ( equiv y) then used E0, E1. Is E0:=E(0), E1:=E(1)?
 
You haven't written down what ##r^2## is, which feels like an important piece.
 
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