Corresponding Energy Levels for Normalised Eigenfunctions

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on calculating the energy levels for a particle confined in a 1D infinite square well, described by the normalized energy eigenfunction Un(x) = (2/a)^(1/2) sin(nπx/a) for n = 1, 2, 3. The corresponding energy levels are given by En = (h²/2m)(n/(2a))², where h is the reduced Planck constant. Participants clarify that there is no need to unnormalize the wavefunction, as the energy levels can be derived directly from the Hamiltonian and the eigenfunction using the time-independent Schrödinger equation.

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  • Understanding of quantum mechanics concepts, specifically the time-independent Schrödinger equation.
  • Familiarity with the properties of infinite square wells in quantum systems.
  • Knowledge of normalization of wavefunctions in quantum mechanics.
  • Basic understanding of Hamiltonian operators and their application in quantum mechanics.
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  • Study the derivation of the time-independent Schrödinger equation in quantum mechanics.
  • Learn about the properties and applications of Hamiltonian operators in quantum systems.
  • Explore normalization techniques for wavefunctions in quantum mechanics.
  • Investigate the implications of energy quantization in infinite potential wells.
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Students of quantum mechanics, physicists working with quantum systems, and anyone interested in the mathematical foundations of energy levels in confined particles.

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Homework Statement



Particle of mass m in a 1D infinite square well is confined between 0 ≤ x ≤ a

Given that the normalised energy eigenfunction of the system is:

Un(x) = ([itex]\frac{2}{a}[/itex])[itex]\frac{1}{2}[/itex] sin ([itex]\frac{nx\pi}{a}[/itex])

where n = 1, 2, 3...

what are the corresponding energy levels?

Homework Equations



Normalisation: 1 = [itex]\int[/itex] lψl2 dx (from negative to positive infinity)

Energy Level for infinite well: En = [itex]\frac{h^2}{2m}[/itex] ([itex]\frac{n}{2a}[/itex])2

Where h = reduced Planck constant (sorry couldn't find it)

The Attempt at a Solution



At first I thought, I could just plug in 1, 2, 3 in Un(x)
But then I realized the question said that Un(x) is normalised.
Does this mean I have to reverse normalise Un(x)? If so, is this order right?

Make Un(x) = 1
Differentiate ([itex]\frac{2}{a}[/itex])[itex]\frac{1}{2}[/itex] sin ([itex]\frac{nx\pi}{a}[/itex])
Then square root whatever the result.

Am I going in the right direction or am I missing something out?

Thank you!
 
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You don't have to unnormalize the wavefunction. You already have the answer in the [itex]E_n[/itex]. The intent of the problem is for you to compute [itex]E_n[/itex] from just the wavefunction and the Hamiltonian, instead of just taking the formula from your notes or book.

In other words, remember that
[tex]\hat H |U_n \rangle = E_n |U_n \rangle[/tex]

Because, well, that's the basic content of the time-independent Schrödinger equation.
 
oh... lol. That's simple enough!

So basically apply the hamiltonian to Un(x)
 

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